How can you believe such simplification really describes the situation?
It describes the situation because no matter of Palestinian mob violence in Mandate Palestine justifies the Nakba. I could go on about how Arabs had no problem with pre-Zionism Aliyahs or actually look into it and see what the first instances of organized violence is, or explain how Zionist terrorists also attacked Arabs but like I said it doesn't matter.
Israel committed ethnic cleansing in 1949, and continues to do so today. There's just nothing in the scale of Mandate Palestine that could've justified that.