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Lemminary , 7 months ago In this particular case, you have two of the few words in English that are two separate words in Spanish by mere coincidence. I guess you could say “¿Por qué no ambos?” which is a literal translation but it sounds less colloquial.
In this particular case, you have two of the few words in English that are two separate words in Spanish by mere coincidence. I guess you could say “¿Por qué no ambos?” which is a literal translation but it sounds less colloquial.