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drathvedro , 4 months ago It would be. By ohm’s law, I=V/R and R=V/I, so if V is fixed as V=1, then I=1/R, R=1/I, so it’s is effectively the same thing, just measured in reverse.
It would be. By ohm’s law, I=V/R and R=V/I, so if V is fixed as V=1, then I=1/R, R=1/I, so it’s is effectively the same thing, just measured in reverse.