“acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group”.
The intent “to destroy whole or in part” is not there. If Israel had the intent to eradicade the people of Gaza it could have easily done so for a long time. That is not “mental gymnastics” but a matter of intent, as stated in your definition. They take into account that many, many innocent people in Gaza are killed as collaterals in their fight to destroy Hamas, but Israel actually wanting to eradicate the populace would look very different. I’m open to change my view the coming weeks but I don’t see Israel eradicating them. I also accept that you vehemently disagree with me on this.
On the other hand Hamas has put the intent of the complete destruction of Israel in its founding charter - one can easily claim that every attack on Israel by Hamas is an act of genocide.