I may be incorrect, but I do not believe this is sematic.
If the preamble doesn’t matter, then why is it there? Why have it if it doesn’t mean anything?
I had a short explanation in my comment: A preamble may be inserted between the title and the enacting clause of a bill for multiple reasons: to explain the state of affairs that caused the bill to be introduced; to make clear the purpose of the bill; as a sales pitch to improve the chances of enactment; or to serve some other purpose of the sponsor.
Just because one is called a preamble and one a definition doesn’t mean that people won’t use either as the “real” definition.
The actions the government are to take to enact this order are described after this portion of the order:
NOW, THEREFORE, I, Jim Pillen, Governor of the State of Nebraska, under and pursuant to the authority vested in the Governor by the Constitution and the laws of the State of Nebraska, do hereby order and direct the following: